Name: 
 

Forestry Science 2 Exam FY25



Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 1. 

The ability of soils to release water so that it flows through the topsoil into the subsoil, and eventually to aquifers, is called _____.
A.
drainage
B.
weathering
C.
filtration
D.
aggregation
 

 2. 

What is the largest soil particle?
A.
Silt
B.
Gravel
C.
Sand
D.
Clay
 

 3. 

What is parent material?
A.
Hard rock that has not weathered and cannot be excavated
B.
Geological material from which soil is formed
C.
Soil that has a pH above 7
D.
Soil that has a pH below 7
 

 4. 

Which soil horizon is located just immediately below the vegetation?
A.
A-horizon
B.
B-horizon
C.
C-horizon
D.
O-horizon
 

 5. 

Which soil horizon contains the most organic matter in soil?
A.
A-horizon
B.
B-horizon
C.
O-horizon
D.
R-horizon
 

 6. 

The parent material is located in which soil horizon?
A.
O-horizon
B.
B-horizon
C.
C-horizon
D.
R-horizon
 

 7. 

Which structural form of soil is shown in this image?
mc007-1.jpg
A.
Granular
B.
Blocky
C.
Platey
D.
Columnar
 

 8. 

Class _____ land has very gentle slopes, slightly shallower soils, and drainage issues that can generally be corrected with grassed waterways or subsurface tile drainage.
A.
II
B.
III
C.
IV
D.
V
 

 9. 

Which class of land is very steep and is primarily suitable for grazing, woodlots, and wildlife cover?
A.
Class III
B.
Class IV
C.
Class V
D.
Class VII
 

 10. 

In which season do deer species rut?
A.
Autumn
B.
Spring
C.
Summer
D.
Winter
 

 11. 

This photo shows an example of a(n) _____ forest.
mc011-1.jpg
A.
deciduous
B.
coniferous
C.
dehiscent
D.
indehiscent
 

 12. 

Which tree is an example of a deciduous tree?
A.
Larch
B.
Spruce
C.
Fir
D.
Birch
 

 13. 

Trees reproduce sexually by _____.
A.
producing seeds
B.
growing leaves or needles
C.
shedding their bark
D.
extending their roots
 

 14. 

A compound leaf is a leaf that _____.
A.
produces seeds in cones
B.
starts out as a leaf but is later replaced by a needle
C.
is exceptionally rigid
D.
is made up of multiple leaflets
 

 15. 

Trees cut for lumber are generally cut into _____ lengths.
A.
8’
B.
12’
C.
16’
D.
20’
 

 16. 

The overall reduction in the number of trees in an area of the forest is called _____.
A.
culling
B.
coppicing
C.
girdling
D.
thinning
 

 17. 

What is a Biltmore stick commonly used for?
A.
Measuring the harvestable height of a tree
B.
Clearing slash from the forest floor
C.
Marking trees for culling
D.
Marking the ground to measure the level of pond succession
 

 18. 

Using the table below, determine the volume of a tree with a DBH of 34” (0.86 m) that contains four 16’ (4.9 m) logs.
mc018-1.jpg
A.
506 board feet
B.
1385 board feet
C.
1487 board feet
D.
1610 board feet
 

 19. 

Which practice involves removing all trees from a given area?
A.
Shelterwood harvesting
B.
Seed tree harvesting
C.
Strip-cutting
D.
Clear-cutting
 

 20. 

This photograph shows an image of which invasive plant pest?
mc020-1.jpg
A.
Cogon grass
B.
Chinese tallow
C.
Kudzu
D.
Japanese honeysuckle
 

 21. 

What is the largest soil particle?
A.
Silt
B.
Gravel
C.
Sand
D.
Clay
 

 22. 

A habitat is...
A.
Any landscape that provides some of the needs of a species.
C.
The environment in which the specific needs of a species are met.
B.
Any place where we find vegetation such as trees or grass.
D.
All of the above.
 

 23. 

Why does habitat loss represent one of the greatest causes of extinction?
A.
Living organisms have evolved over millions of years to have highly specific needs that are met only by their specific habitats.
C.
Without a habitat, a species cannot live under natural conditions.
B.
If a habitat is changed, it can no longer provide the conditions necessary for species to live.
D.
All of the above.
 

 24. 

The maximum population that a habitat can sustainably support is called a…
A.
Carrying Capacity
C.
Ecosystem
B.
Community
D.
Niche
 

 25. 

The interaction of living and non-living species in an area is called…
A.
Carrying Capacity
C.
Ecosystem
B.
Community
D.
Niche
 

 26. 

The specific role a species plays in its habitat is called…
A.
Carrying Capacity
C.
Ecosystem
B.
Community
D.
Niche
 

 27. 

The interactions of living species in a habitat is a…
A.
Carrying Capacity
C.
Ecosystem
B.
Community
D.
Niche
 

 28. 

This niche is when species interact to the benefit of all involved.
A.
Competition
D.
Symbiosis
B.
Predation/Parasitism
E.
Commensalism
C.
Mutualism
 

 29. 

This niche is when two species struggle to acquire the same resource.
A.
Competition
D.
Symbiosis
B.
Predation/Parasitism
E.
Commensalism
C.
Mutualism
 

 30. 

This niche is when one species gains resources at the expense of another species.
A.
Competition
D.
Symbiosis
B.
Predation/Parasitism
E.
Commensalism
C.
Mutualism
 

 31. 

This niche is when one species benefits without affecting another species.
A.
Competition
D.
Symbiosis
B.
Predation/Parasitism
E.
Commensalism
C.
Mutualism
 

 32. 

This niche is where two species cooperate to the extent that they physically cannot survive without each other.
A.
Competition
D.
Symbiosis
B.
Predation/Parasitism
E.
Commensalism
C.
Mutualism
 

 33. 

Which of the following best describes amensalism?
A.
When one species benefits another species without benefiting itself.
C.
When one species benefits another species without harming itself.
B.
When one species harms another species without benefiting itself.
 

 34. 

Which of the following best summarizes the Competition Exclusion Principle?
A.
If two species occupy the same niche at the same time, they will cooperate to use the resources.
C.
If two species occupy the same niche at the same time, both will go extinct.
B.
If two species occupy the same niche at the same time, one species will eliminate the other over time.
D.
All of the above are accurate summaries.
 

 35. 

A species with a very narrow niche is called a…
A.
Habitat generalist
C.
Predator
B.
Habitat specialist
D.
Threatened or endangered species
 

 36. 

As habitats become ________________ , the impact of the Competitive Exclusion Principle ________________ .
A.
Smaller; Increases
C.
Larger; Increases
B.
Smaller; Decreases
 

 37. 

How do invasive species affect the Competitive Exclusion Principle?
A.
Invasive species reduce competition within a niche, providing more ecosystem services to native species.
C.
Invasive species increase the competition within a niche, making it harder to acquire resources.
B.
Invasive species expand the number of niches in an ecosystem.
D.
All of the above.
 

 38. 

The process in which a habitat undergoes natural, slow change is called…
A.
Succession
C.
Resilience
B.
Disturbance
 

 39. 

The ability of a habitat to overcome threats and return to a normal state is known as…
A.
Succession
C.
Resilience
B.
Disurbance
 

 40. 

How do human-caused disturbances differ from natural disturbances?
A.
They do not differ; both cause extensive damage and threaten biodiversity
C.
Human disturbances occur on a much smaller scale than natural disturbances
B.
Natural disturbances tend to be rapid and temporary; human disturbances tend to have a longer impact.
D.
Human disturbances are rare while natural disturbances occur much more often.
 

 41. 

The _____________ the biodiversity of a habitat, the_____________ the resilience of that habitat.
A.
Greater; Greater
C.
Lower; Greater
B.
Greater; Lower
 

 42. 

What is habitat fragmentation?
A.
When a habitat experiences a selective harvest of timber.
C.
When a habitat is broken into multiple smaller habitats that are isolated from each other.
B.
When a habitat experiences a disturbance such as pollution or invasive species.
D.
All of the above.
 

 43. 

The ______________ the size of the habitat, and the ______________ the biodiversity, the ______________ the habitat will be.
A.
Greater; Lower; Healthier
C.
Greater; Higher; Healthier
B.
Smaller; Lower; Healthier
 

 44. 

The main causes of habitat fragmentation include…
A.
Succession, natural disturbances, pollution, and hunting.
C.
Human development, succession, natural disturbances, and deforestation.
B.
Road building, succession, natural disturbances, and conversion.
D.
Human development, road building, deforestation, and conversion.
 

 45. 

Which of the following is NOT an outcome of fragmentation?
A.
Decreased populations due to lowered carrying capacities. Inbreeding and losses of genetic diversity.
C.
Loss of specialist species with narrow niches.
B.
Increased predation, parasitism, and invasive species.
D.
Increased species diversity due to evolution resulting from new selection pressures.
 

 46. 

What is the difference between patchiness and edge?
A.
Patchiness is the amount of border a habitat has while edge is how broken up a habitat is.
C.
Patchiness is another word for fragmentation; edge is a result of the fragmentation.
B.
Edge is the amount of border a habitat has while patchiness is how broken up a habitat is.
D.
Edge is another word for fragmentation; patchiness is a result of the fragmentation.
 

 47. 

Which is not one of the 7 glands found on the body of a white-tailed deer?
A.
Post-orbital gland
C.
Preputial gland
B.
Forehead gland
D.
Tarsal gland
 

 48. 

Antlers are different than horns in all of the following ways except?
A.
Antlers shed and regrown annually
C.
Antlers grow from the base.
B.
Antlers are made of calcified “true” bone.
D.
Antlers are used during sparring and fighting to establish hierarchy.
 

 49. 

Which sensory organ is referred to as the whitetail’s “sixth sense”?
A.
Obamasum
C.
Vomeronasal organ
B.
Interdigital gland
D.
Nasal gland
 

 50. 

White-tailed deer are classified as ruminants due to:
A.
Having a single four-chambered stomach
C.
Having four stomachs that do not differ in function
B.
Having four stomachs that each provide a different function
 

 51. 

White-tailed deer gestation period is:
A.
160-165 days
C.
185-195 days
B.
170-175 days
D.
195-200 days
 

 52. 

Which of the following information can be gained from a trail-camera survey?
A.
Deer density
D.
Buck-to-doe ratio
B.
Idea of buck age-structure
E.
All answers are correct
C.
Fawn recruitment rate
 

 53. 

Quality Deer Management is define by:
A.
The approach where young bucks are protected from harvest, combined with an adequate harvest of female deer to produce healthy deer herds in balance with existing habitat conditions.
C.
The approach where any antlered buck is harvested, regardless of age or antler quality, and few does are harvested.
B.
The approach where only fully mature bucks with high-scoring antlers are harvested (with the exception of low-scoring middle-aged bucks) and does are aggressively harvested to maintain low deer density and optimum nutrition for the remaining animals.
D.
No answers are correct.
 

 54. 

What is the age of this deer?
mc054-1.jpg
A.
Fawn
C.
2.5 years old
B.
1.5 years old
 

 55. 

What is the age of this deer?
mc055-1.jpg
A.
Fawn
C.
2.5 years old
B.
1.5 years old
 

 56. 

What is the age of this deer?
mc056-1.jpg
A.
Fawn
C.
2.5 years old
B.
1.5 years old
 

 57. 

What is the system called that groups soils with similar limitations and classifies them according to the best possible use?
A.
Land Factor
C.
Land Capability Class
B.
Land Form
D.
Land Use Class
 

 58. 

The _____ number, the less suitable the land is for crop production.
A.
Higher
C.
Even
B.
Lower
D.
Odd
 

 59. 

The most common limiting factor for classifying land as cultivatable is...
A.
Drainage
C.
Erosion
B.
Topsoil Thickness
D.
Slope
 

 60. 

Read the diameter tape below:
mc060-1.jpg
A.
10.4
C.
9.6
B.
9.4
D.
9.4
 

 61. 

What is the total height of the tree below?
mc061-1.jpg
A.
83’
C.
56’
B.
66’
D.
103’
 

 62. 

An accident is
A.
Sudden or unintentional event that causes injury
C.
a substance used to stop pain or itching.
B.
What happens when you wet the bed.
D.
loss of salt resulting in muscular pains & spasms.
 

 63. 

A way to prevent heat being an environmental hazard is to
A.
wear proper clothing
C.
pace yourself
B.
know the signs of heat exhaustion
D.
all of the above
 

 64. 

Insects are generally not life threatening but they are  ____________ during spring, summer, & fall.
A.
beautiful
C.
scarce
B.
annoying
D.
pink
 

 65. 

Which of the following is not a way to protect yourself from wildlife?
A.
Stay calm
C.
Taunt a mother bear
B.
Wear proper clothing
D.
Use good judgement
 

 66. 

Which of the following is not a venomous snake in Georgia?
A.
Coral snake
C.
Timber rattler
B.
Indigo snake
D.
Cottonmouth
 

 67. 

The only deadly spider(s) in the US is/are the
A.
Black Widow
C.
Tarantula
B.
Brown Recluse
D.
Both A & B
 

 68. 

This snake has a white mouth and typically lives in aquatic areas.
A.
Timber rattler
C.
Coral snake
B.
Cottonmouth moccasin
D.
Copperhead
 

 69. 

Which of the following diseases can be carried by ticks?
A.
Lyme disease
C.
Tularemia
B.
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
D.
All of the Above
 

 70. 

What is the best way to protect yourself from the Saddleback Caterpillar?
A.
OFF Deep Woods Spray
C.
Long sleeved shirts
B.
Wear a tank top
D.
Carry a lucky rabbit’s foot
 

 71. 

DBH is a measurement of the diameter of a tree at breast height which is:
A.
4 feet above the ground level
C.
5 feet above ground level
B.
4.5 feet above ground level
D.
5.5 feet above ground level
 

 72. 

An instrument consisiting of a thin wedge of glass that is used to determine the number of trees that should be counted when determining the basal per acre is called what?
A.
dendrometer
C.
hyposmeter
B.
prism
D.
clinometer
 

 73. 

You tally 12 trees using a 10 factor wedge prism. What is the sqaure feet of basal area per acre of the treees around that point?
A.
60
C.
120
B.
100
D.
240
 

 74. 

______ species, sometimes called confiers, are trees that have leaves in the form of needles.
A.
Hardwood
C.
Evergreen
B.
Softwood
D.
Deciduous
 

 75. 

When measuring diameter breast height of a tree with a Biltmore Stick, how many inches from the eye is the stick held?
A.
21 inches
C.
25 inches
B.
24 inches
D.
30 inches
 

 76. 

The basal area is _____ if one has tallied 8 trees with a 10 factor prism.
A.
8 sq. ft
C.
800 sq. inches
B.
80 sq. inches
D.
80 sq. ft
 

 77. 

The ability of soils to release water so that it flows through the topsoil into the subsoil, and eventually to aquifers, is called _____.
A.
drainage
B.
weathering
C.
filtration
D.
aggregation
 

 78. 

In which season do deer species rut?
A.
Autumn
B.
Spring
C.
Summer
D.
Winter
 

 79. 

Trees cut for lumber are generally cut into _____ lengths.
A.
8’
B.
12’
C.
16’
D.
20’
 

 80. 

What is a Biltmore stick commonly used for?
A.
Measuring the harvestable height of a tree
B.
Clearing slash from the forest floor
C.
Marking trees for culling
D.
Marking the ground to measure the level of pond succession
 

 81. 

mc081-1.jpg
A.
Sweetgum
C.
White Oak
B.
Sycamore
D.
Pecan
 

 82. 

mc082-1.jpg
A.
Yellow-poplar
C.
Sugar Maple
B.
Red Maple
D.
Lodgepole Pine
 

 83. 

mc083-1.jpg
Needles 6-9 inches long
A.
Loblolly Pine
C.
Red Spruce
B.
Shortleaf Pine
D.
Black Cherry
 

 84. 

mc084-1.jpg
Needles 10-18 inches, bundles of three
A.
Longleaf Pine
C.
Lodgepole Pine
B.
Balsam Fir
D.
Elm
 

 85. 

mc085-1.jpg
A.
Shortleaf Pine
C.
Sitka Spruce
B.
Eastern Redcedar
D.
American Beech
 

 86. 

mc086-1.jpg
A.
American Beech
C.
Yellow-Poplar
B.
Black Cherry
D.
Red Pine
 

 87. 

Using a 1 inch diameter class, a 15.2 inch tree will be tallied as what diameter tree?
A.
14
C.
16
B.
15
D.
18
 

Multiple Response
Identify one or more choices that best complete the statement or answer the question.
 

 88. 

Which of the following is a conifer?
 A.
Aspen
 C.
Eastern cottonwood
 B.
Black Cherry
 D.
Eastern redeedar
 

 89. 

You are using a clinometer to determine tree height on level ground from a distance of 100’. Your reading to the tops of the tree is +85%; the bottom reading is -5%. What is the height of the tree?(NRS.02.03)
 A.
75’
 C.
85’
 B.
80’
 D.
90’
 

 90. 

What is the stinging bug found in our area that is not an insect? 
 A.
Scorpion
 C.
Wasp
 B.
Bee
 D.
Hornet
 

 91. 

Which of the following would be an example of a topographic hazard?
 A.
Fallen Tree
 C.
Poison Ivy
 B.
Copperhead
 D.
Heat Exhaustion
 

 92. 

How many feet are usually in a “log”?
 A.
14 feet
 C.
8 feet
 B.
16 feet
 D.
20 feet
 

 93. 

To estimate the height of a tree use a(n) _______. (NRS.02.03)
 A.
Increment borer
 C.
Bark gauge
 B.
Clinometer
 D.
Diameter tape
 

 94. 

What does the black widow have on the underside of its abdomen?
 A.
A red hourglass
 C.
A blue diamond
 B.
A red circle
 D.
A green triangle
 

 95. 

Which of the venomous snakes is solid black? 
 A.
Cottonmouth
 C.
Rattlesnake
 B.
Copperhead
 D.
Coral Snake
 

 96. 

What is a substance used to stop pain or itching?
 A.
Accident
 C.
Antiseptic
 B.
Anesthetic
 D.
Wound
 

 97. 

What does DBH stand for?
 A.
Direct Base Height
 C.
Diameter Breast Height
 B.
Direct Basal Hold
 D.
Diameter Base Height
 

True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.
 

 98. 

A sandy beach is an example of Class I land.
 

 99. 

Timber stand improvement may include removing desirable trees for thinning purposes.
 

 100. 

The sex of a deer can consistently be determined by the track.
 

 101. 

Only one buck uses a scrape, and does do not use scrapes.
 

 102. 

White-tailed deer have always been abundant throughout the last 200 years.
 

 103. 

White-tailed deer have a field of vision that is limited to 200 degrees.
 

 104. 

The only mechanism of touch that whitetails experience is from their hooves on the ground.
 

 105. 

Almost all activity (80%) at scrape sites is during the night.
 

 106. 

All deer have the same home range size.
 

 107. 

When 12 to 18-month-old deer travel 1 to 3 miles away from their birth range to establish an adult home-range, this is referred to as “dispersal.”
 

Matching
 
 
A.
Younger
F.
Rut
B.
Home Range
G.
Photoperiod
C.
Rub-urination
H.
Directional Hearing
D.
Bachelor Groups
I.
Fetal Scale
E.
Fawn Recruitment Rate
 

 108. 

The ___________ is the period of the year where active breeding in whitetails is at the highest point.
 

 109. 

Whitetail bucks form ____________ during the summer months due to low testosterone levels.
 

 110. 

One goal of Quality Deer Management is to minimize the harvest of _______________ bucks.
 

 111. 

The casting of antlers is regulated by testosterone and ____________.
 

 112. 

The ability of whitetails to move their ears without moving their head is referred to as ___________.
 

 113. 

When a buck places both tarsal glands together and urinates on them, this is referred to as __________.
 

 114. 

The amount of fawns per doe that survive to become part of the huntable deer herd every fall.
 

 115. 

The place where a deer will spend nearly 100% of their time
 

 116. 

Biologists will use a __________ to determine the timing of the rut during each hunting season.
 
 
A.
drainage
E.
slope
B.
effective depth
F.
topsoil texture
C.
erosion
G.
topsoil thickness
D.
permeability
 

 117. 

process of water being removed from the soil
 

 118. 

the proportion of sand, silt, and clay in the topsoil
 

 119. 

the surface layer of the land measured from ground level to the beginning of the subsoil
 

 120. 

the steepness of the area or field
 

 121. 

the depth to which plant roots can easily penetrate
 

 122. 

ability of air and water to move through the subsoil
 

 123. 

the percentage of the original topsoil which has suffered the harmful effects of water and wind
 



 
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